P.S. For more info on anonymous posts, see this link.
For theVP Team
Me and my boyfriend have been recently diagnosed with chlamydia. I have no idea how that happened. Because I was symptomless, and my boyfriend only got symptoms after having sex with me, I assume it was me who had it first. Is that a reasonable thing to think? Thing is, every single time I have had sex in the past it has been with a condom. I've never ever given a blow job without one, and I've never received oral. The only person I've ever had unprotected sex with is my boyfriend. I have no contact with any of my previous sexual partners and can't ask them about it. This is worrying me because, before being with my boyfriend, I haven't had sex for well over two years. If I've had this for two years without realising, that's quite a scary thought for me. My boyfriend had sex once before (I don't know if it was protected or not - I will ask him when I see him, but I don't want to ask over a text right now). Is it possible that he could have had it all this time and his symptoms have only shown up now? I think I'm probably stretching it with that - I mean, if so, pretty big coincidence that it came up now, huh? I just want to know where it came from. I'm not looking to blame one of us here - well, I suppose I am, but not in a bad way. I just can't figure out how I got it, and if there's a chance that it's come from him I will feel so much more reassured because that means an explanation.